Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 04:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

When North Koreans visit other countries for the Olympics, what stops some of them fleeing away into that host country?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

I listened to Kamala Harris speech she gave in North Carolina. I support 100% of what she said. I am more and more in favor of a Kamala Harris presidency if Biden becomes unable to be our president! Do you find yourself supporting Kamala Harris now?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.